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Question Number 83037 by otchereabdullai@gmail.com last updated on 27/Feb/20

If m=((1−cosθ)/(sinθ)) ,  show that (1/m)= ((1+sinθ)/(sinθ))

$$\mathrm{If}\:\mathrm{m}=\frac{\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{cos}\theta}{\mathrm{sin}\theta}\:,\:\:\mathrm{show}\:\mathrm{that}\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{m}}=\:\frac{\mathrm{1}+\mathrm{sin}\theta}{\mathrm{sin}\theta} \\ $$

Commented by Tony Lin last updated on 27/Feb/20

(1/m)=((sinθ)/(1−cosθ))= ((sinθ(1+cosθ))/((1−cosθ)(1+cosθ)))  =((1+cosθ)/(sinθ))

$$\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{m}}=\frac{{sin}\theta}{\mathrm{1}−{cos}\theta}=\:\frac{{sin}\theta\left(\mathrm{1}+{cos}\theta\right)}{\left(\mathrm{1}−{cos}\theta\right)\left(\mathrm{1}+{cos}\theta\right)} \\ $$$$=\frac{\mathrm{1}+{cos}\theta}{{sin}\theta} \\ $$

Commented by otchereabdullai@gmail.com last updated on 27/Feb/20

thanks sir tony

$$\mathrm{thanks}\:\mathrm{sir}\:\mathrm{tony} \\ $$

Commented by JDamian last updated on 27/Feb/20

Really?

$${Really}? \\ $$

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