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Question Number 83204 by M±th+et£s last updated on 28/Feb/20

∫_(t−1) ^t ln(x!)dx=?

$$\int_{{t}−\mathrm{1}} ^{{t}} {ln}\left({x}!\right){dx}=? \\ $$

Commented by MJS last updated on 28/Feb/20

if you use x! it′s only defined for x∈N ⇒ no  integral possible

$$\mathrm{if}\:\mathrm{you}\:\mathrm{use}\:{x}!\:\mathrm{it}'\mathrm{s}\:\mathrm{only}\:\mathrm{defined}\:\mathrm{for}\:{x}\in\mathbb{N}\:\Rightarrow\:\mathrm{no} \\ $$$$\mathrm{integral}\:\mathrm{possible} \\ $$

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