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Question Number 85793 by M±th+et£s last updated on 24/Mar/20
$$\int_{\mathrm{1}} ^{\mathrm{2}} \frac{{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left({x}−\mathrm{1}\right)\:{ln}\left({x}−\mathrm{1}\right)}{{x}}\:{dx} \\ $$
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