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Question Number 85914 by frc2crc last updated on 26/Mar/20
LetIn=∫π/40(1−tanA1+tanA)ndAwhatistheLaplaceTransformandtheFourierTransform
Answered by mind is power last updated on 26/Mar/20
In=∫0π4(cos(A)−sin(A)sin(A)+cos(A))ndA=∫0π4(−1)n{sin(A−π4)cos(A−π4)}n=(−1)n∫0π4tgn(A−π4)dAy=A−π4⇒dy=dA=(−1)n∫−π40tgn(y)dy,t=tg(y)⇒dy=dt1+t2=(−1)n∫−10tn1+t2dt=∫01tn1+t2dt=∫01tn.(∑k⩾0(−t2)k)dt=∫01∑k⩾0(−1)kt2k+ndt=∑k⩾0(−1)k2k+n+1=∑k⩾0∏k−1t=0(n+12+t).∏k−1t=0(1+t)2∏k−1t=0(n+32+t)(−1)kk!=12∑k⩾0(1+t)k(n+12+t)k(n+32+t)k.(−1)kk!=122F1(1,n+12;n+32;−1)
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