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Question Number 86230 by M±th+et£s last updated on 27/Mar/20

is  (−1)^(m/n)  =((((−1 )^m ))^(1/n) ) or =(((−1))^(1/n) )^m   or both of them are fault and why ?

is(1)mn=((1)mn)or=(1n)morbothofthemarefaultandwhy?

Answered by MJS last updated on 27/Mar/20

(−1)^(m/n) =(e^(iπ) )^(m/n) =e^(iπ(m/n)) =cos ((πm)/n) +i sin ((πm)/n)  (((−1)^m ))^(1/n) =(((e^(iπ) )^m ))^(1/n) =(e^(iπm) )^(1/n) = { (((1)^(1/n) =1; m=2k)),((((−1))^(1/n) =e^(i(π/n)) =cos (π/n) +i sin (π/n); m=2k+1)) :}; k∈Z  (((−1))^(1/n) )^m =((e^(iπ) )^(1/n) )^m =(e^(i(π/n)) )^m =e^(i((πm)/n)) =cos ((πm)/n) +i sin ((πm)/n)

(1)mn=(eiπ)mn=eiπmn=cosπmn+isinπmn(1)mn=(eiπ)mn=eiπmn={1n=1;m=2k1n=eiπn=cosπn+isinπn;m=2k+1;kZ(1n)m=(eiπn)m=(eiπn)m=eiπmn=cosπmn+isinπmn

Commented by M±th+et£s last updated on 27/Mar/20

thank you sir

thankyousir

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