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Question Number 86592 by M±th+et£s last updated on 29/Mar/20

$$provethat$$$$2\underset{x=1}{\sum ^{\mathrm{\infty }}}\frac{2^x{(x!)}^2}{\left(2x\right)!\left(x\right)}$$

Commented by M±th+et£s last updated on 29/Mar/20

$$=\pi$$

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