Question Number 90003 by M±th+et£s last updated on 20/Apr/20
$${show}\:{that} \\ $$$$\int_{−\infty} ^{\infty} \frac{{dx}}{\mathrm{1}+\left({x}+{tan}\left({x}\right)\right)^{\mathrm{2}\:} }=\pi \\ $$
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Question Number 90003 by M±th+et£s last updated on 20/Apr/20 | ||
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$${show}\:{that} \\ $$$$\int_{−\infty} ^{\infty} \frac{{dx}}{\mathrm{1}+\left({x}+{tan}\left({x}\right)\right)^{\mathrm{2}\:} }=\pi \\ $$ | ||