Question Number 90512 by M±th+et£s last updated on 24/Apr/20
$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}{dx} \\ $$
Commented by Kunal12588 last updated on 24/Apr/20
$$\infty? \\ $$
Commented by jagoll last updated on 24/Apr/20
$${diverges} \\ $$
Answered by mahdi last updated on 24/Apr/20
![=ln(x)]_0 ^1 =ln(1)−ln(0)=+∞](Q90523.png)
$$\left.=\mathrm{ln}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)\right]_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} =\mathrm{ln}\left(\mathrm{1}\right)−\mathrm{ln}\left(\mathrm{0}\right)=+\infty \\ $$
Commented by MJS last updated on 24/Apr/20
![strictly mathematical language [ln x]_0 ^1 =ln 1 −lim_(x→0^+ ) ln x ... =+∞](Q90543.png)
$$\mathrm{strictly}\:\mathrm{mathematical}\:\mathrm{language} \\ $$$$\left[\mathrm{ln}\:{x}\right]_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} =\mathrm{ln}\:\mathrm{1}\:−\underset{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{+} } {\mathrm{lim}ln}\:{x}\:...\:=+\infty \\ $$