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Question Number 92790 by  M±th+et+s last updated on 09/May/20

∫_0 ^1 ((π/4)−tan^(−1) (x))(dx/(1−x^2 ))

$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \left(\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}−{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left({x}\right)\right)\frac{{dx}}{\mathrm{1}−{x}^{\mathrm{2}} } \\ $$

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