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Question Number 94241 by Ar Brandon last updated on 17/May/20
Provethatarctan(x)+2arctan(1+x2−x)=π2
Commented by mathmax by abdo last updated on 17/May/20
letφ(x)=arctanx+2srctan(1+x2−x)⇒φ′(x)=11+x2+2×(1+x2−x)′1+(1+x2−x)2=11+x2+2×x1+x2−11+1+x2−2x1+x2+x2=11+x2+2×x−1+x21+x2(2+2x2−2x1+x2)=11+x2+x−1+x21+x2(1+x2−x1+x2)=(1+x2)1+x2−x(1+x2)+(1+x2)x−(1+x2)1+x2(1+x2)1+x2(1+x2−x1+x2)=0⇒φ(x)=cc=φ(0)=0+2arctan(1)=2×π4=π2theequalityisproved.
Answered by som(math1967) last updated on 17/May/20
tan−1x+2tan−1(1+x2−x)tan−1x+tan−12(1+x2−x)1−(1+x2−x)2tan−1x+tan−12(1+x2−x)1−1−x2−x2+2x1+x2tan−1x+tan−12(1+x2−x)2x(1+x2−x)tan−1x+tan−11xtan−1x+cot−1x=π2
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