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Question Number 94835 by Jidda28 last updated on 21/May/20

proof or disproof that if a quotient  group (G/H) is abelian then G must be abelian.

$$\mathrm{proof}\:\mathrm{or}\:\mathrm{disproof}\:\mathrm{that}\:\mathrm{if}\:\mathrm{a}\:\mathrm{quotient} \\ $$$$\mathrm{group}\:\frac{\mathrm{G}}{\mathrm{H}}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{abelian}\:\mathrm{then}\:\mathrm{G}\:\mathrm{must}\:\mathrm{be}\:\mathrm{abelian}. \\ $$

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