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Question Number 98913 by mr W last updated on 17/Jun/20
solvef′(x)=f(f(x))
Commented by john santu last updated on 17/Jun/20
letf(x)=Kxβf′(x)=Kβxβ−1f(f(x))=K(Kxβ)β=Kβ+1xβ2⇔f′(x)=f(f(x))Kβxβ−1=K.Kβxβ2⇒β2=β−1⇔{β=1+i32β=1−i32β=e±iπ3.⇔Kβ=β⇒K=β1βforβ=eiπ3⇒1β=e−iπ3K=eiπ3.−iπ3=e36π(32+12)
Commented by mr W last updated on 17/Jun/20
thankssir!norealfunction?
nosir.
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