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Question Number 99413 by maths mind last updated on 20/Jun/20
∫0+∞sin(ax)e2πx−1dx
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 20/Jun/20
I=∫0∞sin(ax)e2πx−1dx⇒I=∫0∞e−2πxsin(ax)1−e−2πx=∫0∞e−2πxsin(ax)∑n=0∞e−2πnxdx=∑n=0∞∫0∞e−(2π+2πn)xsin(ax)dx=2π(n+1)x=t∑n=0∞∫0∞e−tsin(at2π(n+1))dt2π(n+1)=12π∑n=0∞1n+1∫0∞e−tsin(at2π(n+1))dtwehave∫0∞e−tsin(at2π(n+1))dt=Im(∫0∞e−(1+ai2π(n+1))tdt)and∫0∞e−(1+ai2π(n+1))tdt=[−11+ai2π(n+1)e−(1+ai2π(n+1))t]0∞=11+ai2π(n+1)=2π(n+1)2π(n+1)+ai=2π(n+1)(2π(n+1)−ai)4π2(n+1)2+a2⇒Im(∫0∞(....)dt)=−2πa(n+1)4π2(n+1)2+a2⇒I=12π∑n=0∞1(n+1)×−2πa(n+1)4π2(n+1)2+a2=−a∑n=0∞14π2(n+1)2+a2andthisseriecanbefoundbyfourier....
Commented by maths mind last updated on 20/Jun/20
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Commented by abdomathmax last updated on 20/Jun/20
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