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Question Number 99846 by bachamohamed last updated on 23/Jun/20

$$\mathit{l}\mathit{i}\underset{\mathit{n}\to \mathrm{\infty }}{\mathit{m}}{(1-\frac{1}{2!})}^{{(\frac{1}{2!}-\frac{1}{3!})}^{.........(\frac{1}{\mathit{n}!}-\frac{1}{(\mathit{n}+1)!})}}=?$$

Commented by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 23/Jun/20

$$Ans=1$$

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