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Question Number 130448 by physicstutes last updated on 25/Jan/21
Giventhatf(x)=f(π−x),provethat∫0πxf(x)dx=π2∫0πf(x)dx.pleasewhataredifferentmethodstoapproachthisquestion?
Answered by TheSupreme last updated on 25/Jan/21
∫0πxf(x)dxu=π−xdu=−dx∫π0(π−u)f(π−u)(−du)=∫0πxf(x)∫0ππf(π−u)du−∫0πuf(π−u)du=∫0πxf(x)dxthan,f(u)=f(π−u);setI=∫0πxf(x)dx∫0ππf(u)du=2∫0πuf(u)du∫0ππ2f(u)du=∫0πuf(u)du
Commented by physicstutes last updated on 25/Jan/21
thankssir
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