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Question Number 76229 by arkanmath7@gmail.com last updated on 25/Dec/19
LetP(x)bepolynomialinxwithintegralcoefficients.IfnisasolutionofP(x)≡0(modn),anda≡b(modn),provethatbisalsoasolution.
Answered by Rio Michael last updated on 25/Dec/19
generallyifa≡b(modn)thenn∣(a−b)ifn∣(a−b)andn∣p(x)fromp(x)≡0(modn)then(a−b)isalsoasolutionnowifa≡b(modn)thenb≡a(modn)whichmeansa≡b(modn)henceaandbaresolutionstop(x)≡0(modn)hencebisasolution.
Commented by arkanmath7@gmail.com last updated on 25/Dec/19
thnxsir
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