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Question Number 76229 by arkanmath7@gmail.com last updated on 25/Dec/19

Let P(x) be polynomial in x with integral  coefficients. If n is a solution of   P(x)≡0(mod n) , and a≡b(mod n),  prove that b is also a solution.

LetP(x)bepolynomialinxwithintegralcoefficients.IfnisasolutionofP(x)0(modn),andab(modn),provethatbisalsoasolution.

Answered by Rio Michael last updated on 25/Dec/19

generally if a≡b(mod n) then n∣(a−b)  if n∣(a−b) and n∣p(x) from p(x)≡ 0(modn)  then (a−b) is also a solution  now if  a≡b(mod n) then b≡a(mod n)  which means a≡b(mod n) hence a and b  are solutions to p(x)≡0(mod n)  hence b is a solution.

generallyifab(modn)thenn(ab)ifn(ab)andnp(x)fromp(x)0(modn)then(ab)isalsoasolutionnowifab(modn)thenba(modn)whichmeansab(modn)henceaandbaresolutionstop(x)0(modn)hencebisasolution.

Commented by arkanmath7@gmail.com last updated on 25/Dec/19

thnx sir

thnxsir

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