Prove that.. 𝛗 : =∫_( 1) ^( +∞) (( ln (x ))/(( x^( π) −1 )( ln^( 2) (x) +1 )^2 ))dx= ((π^( 2) − 8)/(16)) ■


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Question Number 153875 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 11/Sep/21

$Prove that . .$ $ϕ : = \int_{1}^{+ \infty} \frac{l n (x)}{(x^{π} - 1) {({l n}^{2} (x) + 1)}^{2}} d x = \frac{π^{2} - 8}{16} ◼$
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