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Question Number 146030 by Khalmohmmad last updated on 10/Jul/21

Commented by mr W last updated on 10/Jul/21

$$F\left(0\right)=\frac{2\times 0\times F(-1)}{0+1}=0$$$$F\left(1\right)=\frac{2\times 1\times F\left(0\right)}{1+1}=F\left(0\right)=0$$$$butF\left(1\right)=1isgiven.$$$$\Rightarrow questioniswrong!$$

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