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Question Number 153817 by eman_64 last updated on 10/Sep/21

Commented by puissant last updated on 10/Sep/21

Correct..!

Correct..!

Commented by alisiao last updated on 10/Sep/21

yes it is very easy     !n = n! × (−1)^n  × (1/(n!))

yesitisveryeasy!n=n!×(1)n×1n!

Commented by puissant last updated on 11/Sep/21

Sir !n= n!×Σ_(k=0) ^n (−1)^k ×(1/(k!))..

Sir!n=n!×nk=0(1)k×1k!..

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