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Question Number 176303 by infinityaction last updated on 16/Sep/22

Answered by cortano1 last updated on 16/Sep/22

$$\mathrm{let}\{\begin{array}{l}a+b=x\\ c+d=y\end{array}\Rightarrow x+y=2;\mathrm{y}=2-\mathrm{x}$$$$\mathrm{M}=\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)=\mathrm{x}(2-\mathrm{x})=2\mathrm{x}-{\mathrm{x}}^2;\mathrm{x}⩾0$$$$\Rightarrow 0⩽\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)⩽1$$$$\Rightarrow 0⩽\mathrm{M}⩽1$$

Commented by cortano1 last updated on 16/Sep/22

$$\mathrm{yes}..\mathrm{sir}.\mathrm{thanks}$$

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