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Question Number 201290 by sonukgindia last updated on 03/Dec/23

Answered by Calculusboy last updated on 03/Dec/23

Solution: By using kings rule  I=∫_0 ^(𝛑/2)  ((sin^𝛟 (x))/(sin^𝛟 (x)+cos^𝛟 (x)))dx=∫_0 ^(𝛑/2) ((cos^𝛟 (x))/(cos^𝛟 (x)+sin^𝛟 (x)))dx  2I=∫_0 ^(𝛑/2)  ((sin^𝛟 (x)+cos^𝛟 (x))/(sin^𝛟 (x)+cos^𝛟 (x)))dx  2I=∫_0 ^(𝛑/2) 1dx  2I=(x)∣_0 ^(𝛑/2) +C  2I=((𝛑/2)−0)    ⇔   2I=(𝛑/2)  I=(𝛑/4)

Solution:ByusingkingsruleI=0π2sinφ(x)sinφ(x)+cosφ(x)dx=0π2cosφ(x)cosφ(x)+sinφ(x)dx2I=0π2sinφ(x)+cosφ(x)sinφ(x)+cosφ(x)dx2I=0π21dx2I=(x)0π2+C2I=(π20)2I=π2I=π4

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