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Question Number 206869 by universe last updated on 28/Apr/24

Commented by Frix last updated on 28/Apr/24

$$\mathrm{Answer}\mathrm{is}{\mathrm{e}}^{a_1}-1\mathrm{for}{a}_1\in \mathbb{R}\mathrm{\setminus }\left\{0\right\}$$

Commented by universe last updated on 28/Apr/24

$$how??canyoushareyourapproch$$

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