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Question Number 22332 by A1B1C1D1 last updated on 15/Oct/17

Answered by ajfour last updated on 15/Oct/17

$$\frac{d\left[f\left(x\right)\right]}{dx}=1+2\cos x=0$$$$\Rightarrow \cos x=-\frac{1}{2}$$$$x=2n\pi \pm \frac{2\pi }{3}wheren\in \mathbb{Z}.$$$$whichisequivalentto$$$$x=(2n+1)\pi \pm \frac{\pi }{3}.$$

Commented by A1B1C1D1 last updated on 16/Oct/17

$$\mathrm{Thank}\mathrm{you}\mathrm{very}\mathrm{much}.$$

Commented by A1B1C1D1 last updated on 15/Oct/17

$$\mathrm{Hello},\mathrm{the}\mathrm{correct}\mathrm{answere}\mathrm{is}:(2\mathrm{n}+1)\pi \pm \frac{\pi }{3}$$

Commented by ajfour last updated on 15/Oct/17

$$samelocationseitherway.$$

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