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Question Number 59703 by ranusahu last updated on 13/May/19

Answered by ajfour last updated on 13/May/19

$${2\mathrm{kx}}_0=\frac{\mathrm{Qq}}{2{\pi }^2{ϵ}_0{\mathrm{a}}^2}$$$${\mathrm{x}}_0=\frac{\mathrm{Qq}}{4{\pi }^2{ϵ}_0{\mathrm{a}}^2\mathrm{k}}\left(\mathrm{B}\right)$$

Commented by ranusahu last updated on 14/May/19

$$\mathrm{please}\mathrm{explain}\mathrm{in}\mathrm{detail}$$

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