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Question Number 68966 by anaplak last updated on 17/Sep/19

Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19

${l i m}_{x \to \frac{π^{+}}{2}} \frac{1}{c o s x} = \frac{1}{0^{-}} = - \infty$
Commented by anaplak last updated on 17/Sep/19

$s i r p l e a s e g i v e m e t h e a n s w e r b y s h o w i n g w i t h t h e h e l p o f t a k i n g r i g h t h a n d l i m i t$
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19

$y o u c a n u s e t h e d i a g r a m o f y = c o s x a n d s e e$ $w h e n x \to \frac{π^{+}}{2} t h e n c o s x \to 0^{-}$
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19

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