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Question Number 90086 by I want to learn more last updated on 21/Apr/20

Commented by I want to learn more last updated on 21/Apr/20

Ohh,  i grab

Ohh,igrab

Commented by I want to learn more last updated on 21/Apr/20

And how is   a  −  2b  +  c   =  0

Andhowisa2b+c=0

Commented by mr W last updated on 21/Apr/20

sum of coef. =f(1)  ={1+(a−2b+c)^2 }^(1973)   ={1+0^2 }^(1973)   =1

sumofcoef.=f(1)={1+(a2b+c)2}1973={1+02}1973=1

Commented by I want to learn more last updated on 21/Apr/20

Sir why is sum of coefficient  =  1

Sirwhyissumofcoefficient=1

Commented by john santu last updated on 21/Apr/20

a,b,c are in AP such that   b−a = c−b   2b = a+c

a,b,careinAPsuchthatba=cb2b=a+c

Commented by mr W last updated on 21/Apr/20

why the sum of all coefficients =f(1)?  f(x)=Σ_(k=0) ^n a_k x^k   sum of all coef.=Σ_(k=0) ^n a_k   we get it when we put x=1:  f(1)=Σ_(k=0) ^n a_k 1^k =Σ_(k=0) ^n a_k

whythesumofallcoefficients=f(1)?f(x)=nk=0akxksumofallcoef.=nk=0akwegetitwhenweputx=1:f(1)=nk=0ak1k=nk=0ak

Commented by I want to learn more last updated on 21/Apr/20

Thanks sir

Thankssir

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