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Question Number 96671 by 175 last updated on 03/Jun/20
Answered by maths mind last updated on 03/Jun/20
n=∏ri=1piai⇒φ(n)=∏ri=1(pi−1)piai−1=16=24p1<p2<p3.....<pr⇒r⩽3&pr⩽17r=1⇒φ(n)=(p1−1)p1a1−1=16⇒p1=2,a1=5⇔n=32r=2⇒(p1−1)p1a1−1.(p2−1).p2a2−1=16⇒p2=17⇒p1=2&a1=1n=34,p2=5⇒a2=1,⇒(p1−1).p1a1−1=4p1=2,a1=3⇒n=23.5=40p2=3⇒a2=1⇒p1=1&a1=4⇒n=24.3=48r=3⇒(p1−1)(p2−1)(p3−1)⩽16⇒(p1−1)(p2−1)<4⇒p2⩽5⇒p2∈{3,5}p3⩽9⇒p3∈{2,3,5,7},p3>p2⇒p3∈{5,7}⇒p3=5&p2=3⇒(p1−1)p1a1−12.3a2−1.4.5a3−1=16⇒a2=a3=1&p1=2&a1=2⇒n=4.3.5=60
Commented by 175 last updated on 04/Jun/20
nice job
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