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Question Number 102763 by Ar Brandon last updated on 10/Jul/20

$$\mathrm{Show}\mathrm{that}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{function}\mathrm{defined}\mathrm{within}[0,1]$$$$\mathrm{by}\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)=\{\begin{array}{l}1\mathrm{if}\mathrm{x}\in \mathbb{Q}\cap [0,1]\\ 0\mathrm{otherwise}\end{array}\mathrm{is}\mathrm{not}\mathrm{Riemann}\mathrm{integrable}$$$$\mathrm{within}[0,1]$$

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