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Question Number 115193 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 24/Sep/20
...advancedmathematics...::digammalimit::ifk>0thenprovethatlimx→01x(ψ(k+x2x)−ψ(k2x))=1k✓m.n.july.1970...
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 06/Sep/21
great
Answered by mathdave last updated on 24/Sep/20
solutionletI=limx→0(1x(ψ(m2x+12)−ψ(m2x))weknown∫01tn−11+tdt=12(ψ(k2+12)−ψ(k2))letk=mxI=2x∫01tmx−11+tdtz=mxI=2m∫01ztz−11+tdt(let∫dv=∫ztz−1dz,v=tzandu=11+t,du=−1(1+t)2)usingIBPI=2m(tz1+t)01+2m∫01tz(1+t)2dt=1m+2mlimz→∞∫01tz(1+t)2dtlety=1t,dy=−1t2I=1m+2mlimz→∞∫∞1y−z(1+1y)2×−1y2dyI=1m+2mlimz→∞∫0∞y2yz(1+y)2×dyy2=(1m+2mlimz→∞∫1∞dyyz(1+y)2)=1m∵limx→01x(ψ(m2x+12)−ψ(m2x))=1mQ.E.Dbymathdave(24/09/2020)
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 24/Sep/20
goodwork
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