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Question Number 161280 by HongKing last updated on 15/Dec/21
ifx;y;z>0and11+x+11+y+11+z=1thenprovethat:x+y+z⩾34xyz
Answered by 1549442205PVT last updated on 16/Dec/21
Fromthehypothesis11+x+11+y+11+z=1wegetxy+yz+zx+2(x+y+z)+3=xyz+xy+yz+zx+x+y+z+1orx+y+z+2=xyz.Hence,theinequalitywhichweneedprovetobeequivalentto4(x+y+z)⩾3(x+y+z+2)⇔x+y+z⩾6(∗)Fromthehypothesisx+y+z+2=xyz,applyingtheinequalityAM−GMwehavex+y+z+2=xyz⩽(x+y+z3)3⇒a3−27a−54⩾0⇒(a−6)(a2+6a+9)⩾0⇔(a−6)(a+3)2⩾0⇒a=x+y+z⩾6Thus,theinequality(∗)proved,sox+y+z⩾34xyz(q.e.d)Theequalityoccursifandonlyifx=y=z=2
Commented by HongKing last updated on 17/Dec/21
perfectmydearSirthankyou
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