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Question Number 65825 by ~ À ® @ 237 ~ last updated on 04/Aug/19

let consider  two real numbers p and such as p^2 −q^2 =pq  Prove that     J= ∫_0 ^∞     (dv/(^q (√((1+^q (√(v^p  )) )^p ))))= 1

letconsidertworealnumberspandsuchasp2q2=pqProvethatJ=0dvq(1+qvp)p=1

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