let p prime not 0 and n integr /1≤n<p prove that (((p−1)(p−2)....(p−n))/(n!)) −(−1)^n is integr and divided by p


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Question Number 65915 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 05/Aug/19

$l e t p p r i m e n o t 0 a n d n i n t e g r / 1 ⩽ n < p p r o v e t h a t$ $\frac{(p - 1) (p - 2) . . . . (p - n)}{n!} - {(- 1)}^{n} i s i n t e g r a n d d i v i d e d b y p$
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