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Question Number 138163 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 10/Apr/21
........nice...........calculus.....provethat::Ψ=∑∞n=1(1n2π2+1)=???1e2−1.............
Answered by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 10/Apr/21
∑∞n=11n2+ϕ2=π2∅coth(π∅)−12∅2⇒∑∞n=11n2π2+1=1π2∑∞n=11n2+(1π)2=1π2(π22coth(1)−π22)=12(e2+1e2−1−1)=1e2−1=1ee−1e
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 10/Apr/21
greateful..mr..payan...
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