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Question Number 67532 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 28/Aug/19
provethatπcotan(πα)=limn→+∞∑k=−nn1α−k
Commented by ~ À ® @ 237 ~ last updated on 29/Aug/19
Usetheformulas∑∞−∞f(k)=−∑zkRes(f(z)πcotan(πz),zk)and∑∞−∞(−1)kf(k)=−∑zkRes(f(z)πcsc(πz),zk)[withcsc(πx)=1sin(πx)Soheref(k)=1α−kandzk=α∑∞−∞1α−k=−Res(πcotan(πz)α−z,α)=−limz→α((z−α)πcotan(πz)α−z)=πcotan(πα)
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