use lagranges mean value theorem to prove that x<sin^(−1) x<(x/(√(1−x^2 ))),0<x<1.


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Question Number 25655 by rita1608 last updated on 12/Dec/17

$u s e l a g r a n g e s m e a n v a l u e t h e o r e m t o$ $p r o v e t h a t$ $x < {s i n}^{- 1} x < \frac{x}{\sqrt{1 - x^{2}}}, 0 < x < 1 .$
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